Lean Six Sigma Green Belt:

In six sigma fraternity this is third level in the ladder, the professionals holding this certification are supposed to apply DMAIC (Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve & Control) methodology in any project or business process to improve the net profits. An individual willing to have this globally recognised certification can register himself/herself directly as this does not require any minimum eligibility.

Fee inclusive training, mentoring & examination is Rs 70,800/- ( incusive GST) for green belt + yellow belt + white belt.

Candidate needs to pass by scoring at least 70% in online test only after which the softcopy of the lean six sigma green belt will be awarded.

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Lean Six Sigma Green Belt (CSSC) – Short Notes

Lean Six Sigma Green Belt Certification Practice Question Bank:

Choose the single best answer for each question. The answer key is provided after all questions so you can attempt them without seeing the solutions.

Part 1: Six Sigma fundamentals and Lean principles (Questions 1–20)

1. What is the primary objective of Six Sigma?

A. Increase production regardless of quality B. Reduce process variation and defects C. Eliminate employee training D. Maximize inventory levels

2. What does DMAIC stand for?

A. Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control B. Develop, Monitor, Assess, Inspect, Certify C. Define, Manage, Audit, Implement, Calculate D. Design, Measure, Adjust, Integrate, Control

3. Which organization is abbreviated as CSSC?

A. Certified Statistical Standards Council B. Council for Six Sigma Certification C. Center for Standardized Supply Chains D. Council for Systems and Statistical Control

4. Six Sigma is most closely associated with which statistical concept?

A. Eliminating all process costs B. Maximizing average output alone C. Reducing variation relative to specification limits D. Increasing the number of process steps

5. Which statement best describes Lean?

A. A method for maximizing inventory B. An approach focused on eliminating waste and improving flow C. A financial accounting system D. A method that removes the need for standard work

6. What is the relationship between Lean and Six Sigma?

A. They are mutually exclusive methods B. Lean focuses only on defects, while Six Sigma focuses only on speed C. Lean improves flow and removes waste; Six Sigma reduces variation and defects D. Both focus exclusively on equipment maintenance

7. Which of the following is a common Lean waste?

A. Customer value B. Overproduction C. Standardized work D. Preventive maintenance

8. Producing more items than customers currently need is an example of:

A. Overproduction B. Transportation C. Motion D. Defect prevention

9. An employee walks repeatedly across a facility to collect tools. This is primarily:

A. Inventory waste B. Overprocessing C. Motion waste D. Overproduction

10. Products waiting between manufacturing stages represent:

A. Value-added activity B. Waiting waste C. Poka-yoke D. Continuous flow

11. What is the purpose of 5S?

A. Increase the number of inspections B. Organize and maintain an efficient workplace C. Increase batch sizes D. Replace all standard operating procedures

12. Which sequence correctly represents the commonly used 5S steps?

A. Sort, Set in Order, Shine, Standardize, Sustain B. Standardize, Sort, Sustain, Shine, Set in Order C. Shine, Sustain, Sort, Inspect, Improve D. Set in Order, Standardize, Sort, Sustain, Inspect

13. Kaizen refers to:

A. One-time cost reduction B. Continuous improvement C. Final product inspection only D. Increasing work-in-process inventory

14. What is Just-in-Time (JIT) production intended to achieve?

A. Produce everything in advance B. Maintain maximum inventory C. Supply what is needed, when needed, in the required quantity D. Eliminate customer demand forecasting

15. What is a pull system?

A. Production triggered by downstream demand B. Production based only on annual forecasts C. A system that always maximizes batch size D. A system that ignores customer requirements

16. What is Kanban primarily used for?

A. Calculating standard deviation B. Signaling replenishment or production requirements C. Conducting hypothesis tests D. Calculating depreciation

17. What does poka-yoke mean?

A. Mistake-proofing B. Inventory forecasting C. Statistical sampling D. Financial auditing

18. Which activity is value-added from the customer’s perspective?

A. Correcting an avoidable defect B. Waiting for approval C. Transforming a product in a way the customer needs and is willing to pay for D. Moving paperwork between departments unnecessarily

19. What is the main purpose of a value stream map?

A. Display employee salaries B. Visualize material and information flow through a process C. Calculate annual taxes D. Replace all process measurements

20. Which practice best supports a Lean culture?

A. Discouraging employees from reporting problems B. Blaming individuals for every defect C. Encouraging employee participation in continuous improvement D. Avoiding process standardization

Part 2: Define phase and project selection (Questions 21–35)

21. What is the main purpose of the Define phase?

A. Confirm the permanent control system B. Establish the problem, scope, goals, and customer requirements C. Prove the root cause statistically D. Implement every proposed solution immediately

22. VOC stands for:

A. Value of Control B. Variation of Capacity C. Voice of the Customer D. Verification of Compliance

23. What is a CTQ?

A. Critical-to-Quality characteristic B. Certified Testing Quantity C. Control Tracking Questionnaire D. Cost-to-Quantity ratio

24. Which document formally summarizes a project’s purpose, scope, objectives, and key participants?

A. Histogram B. Project charter C. Control chart D. Scatterplot

25. Which is the best example of a measurable project goal?

A. Improve customer satisfaction as much as possible B. Make employees work harder C. Reduce invoice errors from 8% to 3% within six months D. Improve everything immediately

26. What is the primary function of a SIPOC diagram?

A. Estimate a regression coefficient B. Summarize Suppliers, Inputs, Process, Outputs, and Customers C. Determine statistical significance D. Calculate process capability

27. In a SIPOC diagram, who receives the process output?

A. Supplier B. Customer C. Input owner D. Project sponsor only

28. What does COPQ mean?

A. Cost of Process Qualification B. Control of Product Quality C. Cost of Poor Quality D. Calculation of Process Quantity

29. Which item is an example of an internal failure cost?

A. Warranty claim received from a customer B. Scrap identified before shipment C. Customer survey administration D. Supplier certification before production

30. Which item is an example of an external failure cost?

A. Preventive equipment maintenance B. Employee training C. Customer returns caused by defective products D. Incoming material inspection

31. What is the purpose of a stakeholder analysis?

A. Identify relevant people, their interests, and their influence B. Calculate process sigma level C. Determine the shape of a distribution D. Replace the project charter

32. A project has unclear objectives and an extremely broad scope. What should the team do first?

A. Begin implementing solutions B. Clarify the charter, scope, and measurable objectives C. Construct a control chart immediately D. Increase the sample size without defining the problem

33. What is the primary responsibility of a project champion or sponsor?

A. Collect every data point personally B. Provide leadership support, resources, and help remove barriers C. Perform all statistical calculations D. Replace the project team

34. What is a process owner primarily responsible for?

A. Maintaining the process and sustaining its performance B. Approving every statistical formula C. Selecting the certification exam questions D. Eliminating all customer requirements

35. Why should a project team establish a baseline?

A. To avoid collecting future data B. To compare current performance with future improvements C. To guarantee a successful result D. To eliminate the need for a control plan

Part 3: Measure phase and process performance (Questions 36–55)

36. What is the primary purpose of the Measure phase?

A. Select solutions based only on opinions B. Quantify current process performance using reliable data C. Transfer project ownership immediately D. Eliminate all process documentation

37. Which is an example of continuous data?

A. Number of defective units B. Number of customer complaints C. Product length in millimeters D. Number of late deliveries

38. Which is an example of discrete count data?

A. Temperature in degrees B. Time in seconds C. Weight in kilograms D. Number of defects

39. Which statistic measures the arithmetic average?

A. Median B. Mode C. Mean D. Range

40. What is the median?

A. The most frequent observation B. The middle observation after sorting the data C. The difference between the largest and smallest values D. The square of the standard deviation

41. What does standard deviation measure?

A. The central value only B. The spread of data around the mean C. The number of customers D. The percentage of defective products only

42. The range of a dataset is calculated as:

A. Mean divided by median B. Maximum minus minimum C. Sum divided by sample size squared D. Standard deviation divided by mean

43. What is the main purpose of a histogram?

A. Show the distribution of numerical data B. Display the sequence of process steps C. Show supplier relationships D. Establish project responsibilities

44. What does a Pareto chart help identify?

A. The exact cause of every defect B. The most frequent or significant categories of problems C. Whether all data are normally distributed D. Whether a measurement instrument is calibrated

45. What is the purpose of a scatterplot?

A. Show the relationship between two numerical variables B. Display the organizational hierarchy C. Document project risks only D. Show the frequency of a single category only

46. What does a positive correlation generally indicate?

A. One variable increases as the other tends to decrease B. Both variables tend to increase together C. Both variables are always equal D. One variable necessarily causes the other

47. What does a correlation coefficient of approximately −1 indicate?

A. A strong negative linear relationship B. No linear relationship C. A perfect positive linear relationship D. A constant value for both variables

48. What is the purpose of measurement system analysis (MSA)?

A. Evaluate the reliability of the measurement process B. Select project sponsors C. Determine customer profitability D. Eliminate the need for calibration

49. What is repeatability in measurement?

A. Variation between different instruments only B. Variation when the same operator measures the same item repeatedly with the same instrument under similar conditions C. Variation between different suppliers D. Variation in customer preferences

50. What is reproducibility in measurement?

A. Variation associated with different operators or measurement conditions B. The average of all customer ratings C. The maximum process output D. The difference between specification limits

51. What does measurement bias describe?

A. Random variation between operators B. The systematic difference between the observed average and a reference value C. The spread between the minimum and maximum values D. The number of defects per opportunity

52. What does calibration primarily help establish?

A. Whether a measuring instrument’s readings relate correctly to known reference standards B. Whether a process has enough employees C. Whether a project charter is complete D. Whether a customer will buy a product

53. What is the purpose of operational definitions?

A. Allow each employee to interpret defects differently B. Define precisely how a measure or defect is identified and recorded C. Replace all measurement procedures with informal judgment D. Eliminate the need for data collection

54. A process produces 20 defective units out of 400 units inspected. What is the defective-unit proportion?

A. 2% B. 5% C. 20% D. 50%

55. A process has 12 defects across 60 units. What is the defects per unit (DPU)?

A. 0.2 B. 2 C. 5 D. 12

Part 4: Process capability and statistics (Questions 56–70)

56. What do specification limits represent?

A. Limits calculated automatically from process data B. Acceptable boundaries defined by customer, design, or other requirements C. The average and median of a sample D. The boundaries of a histogram’s bars

57. What do control limits represent?

A. Customer requirements exclusively B. Statistically derived boundaries used to assess process behavior over time C. The maximum price of a product D. Engineering tolerances in every case

58. What is the key difference between control limits and specification limits?

A. There is no difference B. Control limits describe process behavior; specification limits describe required performance C. Specification limits are always narrower D. Control limits are set by customers in every case

59. What does Cp measure?

A. Process centering only B. Potential process capability based on specification width relative to process spread C. The number of defects per million opportunities D. The percentage of missing data

60. Which formula represents Cp for a process with specification limits USL and LSL and within-process standard deviation σ\sigma?

A. (USL−LSL)/(6σ)(USL-LSL)/(6\sigma) B. (USL+LSL)/(6σ)(USL+LSL)/(6\sigma) C. σ/(USL−LSL)\sigma/(USL-LSL) D. (USL−LSL)/σ2(USL-LSL)/\sigma^2

61. What additional consideration does Cpk include compared with Cp?

A. Customer satisfaction survey scores B. How well the process mean is centered within the specification limits C. The number of employees in the process D. The cost of raw materials

62. A process can have a high Cp but a low Cpk when:

A. The process is perfectly centered B. The process mean is substantially off-center C. The specification limits are identical D. The process has no variation

63. What is the usual shape of a normal distribution?

A. U-shaped B. Symmetrical and bell-shaped C. Always negatively skewed D. Uniformly flat

64. In an ideal normal distribution, approximately what percentage of observations lie within one standard deviation of the mean?

A. 50% B. 68% C. 95% D. 99.73%

65. In an ideal normal distribution, approximately what percentage of observations lie within two standard deviations of the mean?

A. 68% B. 90% C. 95% D. 99.99%

66. What does a z-score represent?

A. The number of standard deviations an observation is from the mean B. The total number of defects in a process C. The average number of suppliers D. The width of the specification limits

67. What is the formula for a z-score when the population mean and standard deviation are known?

A. z=(x−μ)/σz=(x-\mu)/\sigma B. z=μ/(x+σ)z=\mu/(x+\sigma) C. z=(x+μ)σz=(x+\mu)\sigma D. z=σ/(x−μ)z=\sigma/(x-\mu)

68. What is the primary purpose of process capability analysis?

A. Compare process performance with specification requirements B. Replace all customer feedback C. Determine the project budget exclusively D. Assign team members to tasks

69. What must generally be considered before interpreting conventional capability indices?

A. Process stability and the appropriateness of the distributional assumptions B. The color of the product C. The number of meetings held D. The seniority of the operator

70. Which metric measures defects per million opportunities?

A. DPU B. DPMO C. Cp D. RPN

Part 5: Analyze phase and root-cause analysis (Questions 71–90)

71. What is the main objective of the Analyze phase?

A. Establish the current baseline only B. Identify and verify the significant causes of process problems C. Finalize the control plan before testing causes D. Close the project without implementing changes

72. What is a fishbone diagram also called?

A. Gantt chart B. Ishikawa or cause-and-effect diagram C. Histogram D. Control chart

73. Which set contains commonly used fishbone categories in manufacturing?

A. Man, Machine, Method, Material, Measurement, Mother Nature/Environment B. Revenue, Profit, Tax, Dividend, Interest, Equity C. Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control, Close D. Supplier, Customer, Invoice, Tax, Margin, Salary

74. What is the primary purpose of the Five Whys technique?

A. Calculate process capability B. Explore successive layers of cause behind a problem C. Measure standard deviation D. Determine the appropriate sample mean

75. What is a root cause?

A. The most visible symptom B. An underlying cause whose removal or control prevents or substantially reduces recurrence C. Any employee involved in the process D. The most expensive solution

76. Why should root-cause hypotheses be validated with data?

A. Opinions are always more reliable than data B. To distinguish actual causes from plausible but unsupported explanations C. To avoid documenting the findings D. To eliminate the need for experiments

77. What is a null hypothesis?

A. A statement that generally represents no effect, no difference, or a specified reference condition B. A statement that a process is always defective C. A guaranteed improvement claim D. A project scope statement

78. What does a p-value indicate?

A. The probability that the null hypothesis is true B. Assuming the null hypothesis and model assumptions hold, the probability of results at least as extreme as those observed C. The percentage of all defective units D. The size of the process mean

79. If the p-value is below a prespecified significance level, α\alpha, the usual decision is to:

A. Accept the null hypothesis as certainly true B. Reject the null hypothesis C. Increase the p-value manually D. Ignore the observed data

80. What is a Type I error?

A. Failing to reject a false null hypothesis B. Rejecting a true null hypothesis C. Measuring a variable incorrectly by definition D. Accepting every alternative hypothesis

81. What is a Type II error?

A. Rejecting a true null hypothesis B. Failing to reject a false null hypothesis C. Using a control chart D. Finding a significant result

82. What is the power of a statistical test?

A. The probability of detecting a specified effect when that effect exists B. The probability that the null hypothesis is true C. The size of the dataset in megabytes D. The maximum value of a measurement

83. Which test is commonly used to compare the means of two independent groups when its assumptions are appropriate?

A. Independent two-sample t-test B. Pareto analysis C. SIPOC analysis D. Gage R&R

84. Which test is commonly used to compare measurements taken before and after an intervention on the same subjects?

A. Independent two-sample t-test only B. Paired t-test C. Chi-square goodness-of-fit test only D. One-way ANOVA for independent groups only

85. Which test is commonly used to compare means across three or more independent groups?

A. One-way ANOVA B. Paired t-test C. One-sample proportion test only D. Gage R&R

86. Which test is commonly used to investigate association between categorical variables in a contingency table?

A. Chi-square test of independence B. Paired t-test C. Linear regression only D. Standard deviation test

87. What is the purpose of regression analysis?

A. Model the relationship between a response variable and one or more predictors B. Organize a workplace using 5S C. Record project meeting attendance D. Identify customer names

88. In the equation Y=a+bXY=a+bX, what does bb represent?

A. The intercept B. The slope C. The sample size D. The standard deviation of X

89. Why is correlation not sufficient to establish causation?

A. Correlation cannot describe any relationship B. Confounding variables, reverse causation, or coincidence may explain the association C. All correlations are negative D. Regression cannot use numerical variables

90. What does a residual represent in regression?

A. The observed response minus the predicted response B. The predictor multiplied by the intercept C. The mean of all predictors D. The difference between specification limits

Part 6: Improve phase and solution development (Questions 91–105)

91. What is the main objective of the Improve phase?

A. Implement and validate solutions addressing verified root causes B. Collect baseline data indefinitely C. Define the original customer only D. Eliminate all process monitoring

92. What is brainstorming primarily intended to encourage?

A. Immediate rejection of unconventional ideas B. Generation of a broad range of potential solutions C. Calculation of control limits D. Formal approval of project closure

93. What is a pilot test?

A. Full-scale implementation without evaluation B. A limited trial used to assess a proposed change before wider deployment C. A replacement for all data collection D. A final certification examination

94. What does DOE stand for?

A. Definition of Errors B. Design of Experiments C. Documentation of Equipment D. Distribution of Estimates

95. What is a key advantage of Design of Experiments (DOE)?

A. It evaluates factor effects and interactions through a planned experimental design B. It eliminates the need to define response variables C. It guarantees every improvement will succeed D. It only permits changing one factor in isolation

96. What is a limitation of one-factor-at-a-time (OFAT) experimentation?

A. It cannot change any process setting B. It may fail to reveal interactions among factors C. It always requires a factorial design D. It cannot compare before-and-after results

97. What is an interaction effect in an experiment?

A. The effect of one factor depends on the level of another factor B. Every factor has exactly the same effect C. The response variable is missing D. The sample mean equals zero

98. What is a decision matrix useful for?

A. Comparing alternatives against defined criteria B. Calculating the median only C. Replacing the customer requirements D. Measuring process variation automatically

99. What is FMEA used for?

A. Identifying potential failure modes and prioritizing risks B. Calculating the arithmetic mean C. Displaying process flow only D. Determining an employee’s salary

100. In traditional FMEA, how is the Risk Priority Number (RPN) calculated?

A. Severity + Occurrence + Detection B. Severity × Occurrence × Detection C. Severity ÷ Occurrence ÷ Detection D. Severity − Occurrence + Detection

101. In FMEA, what does a high severity rating usually indicate?

A. The failure has little impact B. The failure could have a serious consequence C. The failure occurs only once D. The failure is always easy to detect

102. Which is an example of mistake-proofing?

A. A connector designed so it can only be inserted in the correct orientation B. Inspecting every complaint after shipment without changing the process C. Increasing paperwork for every operation D. Storing tools in unmarked locations

103. What does the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle support?

A. Continuous, iterative improvement B. One-time inspection only C. Permanent avoidance of experimentation D. Elimination of process ownership

104. Why is it important to measure the results of an improvement pilot?

A. To verify that the change improves performance without unacceptable side effects B. To guarantee the original hypothesis was correct C. To avoid involving process owners D. To eliminate the need for standardization

105. What should a team generally do if a proposed improvement fails a well-designed pilot?

A. Implement it across the entire organization anyway B. Analyze the findings, revise the solution, or consider alternatives C. Discard the pilot data D. Remove the original performance target

Part 7: Control phase and process sustainability (Questions 106–120)

106. What is the primary objective of the Control phase?

A. Sustain the improvement and monitor ongoing process performance B. Identify the original customer for the first time C. Replace all process measurements with opinions D. Stop all employee training

107. What is a control plan?

A. A document specifying how key process measures and controls will be maintained B. A list of brainstorming ideas only C. A financial statement D. A project charter used without revision forever

108. What is the main purpose of Statistical Process Control (SPC)?

A. Monitor process behavior over time using statistical methods B. Set customer specifications from the sample mean C. Eliminate the need for sampling D. Replace all preventive maintenance

109. What does the center line of a conventional control chart generally represent?

A. The process statistic’s expected central value B. The customer’s maximum tolerance C. The highest possible specification D. The number of operators on a shift

110. What does a point beyond a control limit commonly indicate?

A. A potential special cause that warrants investigation B. Proof that the product is outside specification C. Proof that the process is perfectly capable D. A guaranteed measurement-system failure

111. Which chart is commonly used to monitor the proportion of defective units when sample size can vary?

A. p-chart B. c-chart C. X-bar chart only D. Histogram

112. Which chart is commonly used to monitor the count of defects per inspection unit when the area of opportunity is constant?

A. c-chart B. p-chart C. X-bar chart D. Individual values chart only

113. Which chart pair is commonly used to monitor subgroup averages and ranges for continuous data?

A. p-chart and np-chart B. X-bar chart and R-chart C. c-chart and u-chart D. Pareto chart and histogram

114. Which chart is commonly used for individual continuous observations when rational subgroups are unavailable?

A. I-MR chart B. np-chart C. c-chart D. X-bar chart with subgroup size zero

115. What is a special cause of variation?

A. A source of variation arising from a specific, identifiable change or unusual event B. The routine background variation inherent in a stable process C. A customer specification limit D. A guaranteed sign of process capability

116. What is common-cause variation?

A. Variation arising from the normal system of process factors B. Variation caused exclusively by one operator’s mistake C. Any point beyond a control limit D. A change in the customer specification

117. A stable process is necessarily capable of meeting specifications.

A. Always true B. False; stability and capability are different concepts C. True only for attribute data D. True if the mean equals zero

118. What should normally happen when a control chart signals a credible special cause?

A. Investigate the signal and its context B. Immediately adjust the process without investigation C. Delete the point from the dataset D. Change the specification limits to match the point

119. What is the purpose of a response plan?

A. Specify the actions to take when process performance or monitoring triggers a defined response B. Record only the original project budget C. Replace all control limits with customer opinions D. Prevent operators from reporting abnormal conditions

120. Why is formal project handover important?

A. It transfers responsibilities, documentation, and monitoring arrangements to the process owner B. It removes the need for future monitoring C. It guarantees no defects will ever occur again D. It eliminates the need for standard operating procedures

Section B — 30 True/False questions

Mark each statement True (T) or False (F).

Lean, Six Sigma, and Define (Questions 1–8)

T/F 1. Six Sigma aims to reduce variation and defects through a structured, data-driven approach.

T/F 2. Lean focuses primarily on increasing work-in-process inventory.

T/F 3. Overproduction is one of the commonly recognized forms of Lean waste.

T/F 4. Kaizen is associated with continuous improvement.

T/F 5. The Define phase should establish the problem and project objectives before solutions are selected.

T/F 6. A project charter should clearly describe the project’s scope and objectives.

T/F 7. Voice of the Customer (VOC) is irrelevant when defining CTQ requirements.

T/F 8. A SIPOC diagram summarizes suppliers, inputs, process, outputs, and customers.

Measure and statistics (Questions 9–16)

T/F 9. Standard deviation is a measure of data dispersion.

T/F 10. The median is always equal to the mean.

T/F 11. A histogram can help reveal the shape and spread of a data distribution.

T/F 12. Measurement-system variation can affect the reliability of process improvement conclusions.

T/F 13. Repeatability and reproducibility refer to exactly the same source of measurement variation.

T/F 14. Specification limits and control limits always have the same meaning.

T/F 15. DPMO means defects per million opportunities.

T/F 16. A stable process must always be capable of meeting every specification.

Analyze and Improve (Questions 17–23)

T/F 17. A fishbone diagram helps organize possible causes of a problem.

T/F 18. Correlation alone proves that one variable causes another.

T/F 19. A p-value is the probability that the null hypothesis is true.

T/F 20. A Type I error occurs when a true null hypothesis is rejected.

T/F 21. A paired t-test may be appropriate for before-and-after measurements on the same subjects when its assumptions are satisfied.

T/F 22. DOE can help identify interactions between process factors.

T/F 23. A pilot test can help determine whether a proposed solution works before broader implementation.

Control and sustainability (Questions 24–30)

T/F 24. Control charts are used to study process behavior over time.

T/F 25. Every point inside control limits proves that a process is stable.

T/F 26. A p-chart is commonly used to monitor the proportion of defective units.

T/F 27. A control plan helps sustain process improvements.

T/F 28. Poka-yoke is a technique for mistake-proofing a process.

T/F 29. The Control phase eliminates the need for process ownership and employee training.

T/F 30. Documenting lessons learned and transferring responsibility are useful parts of project closure.

Section C — Answer key :

MCQ Answer Key (1–120)

1-B, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C, 5-B, 6-C, 7-B, 8-A, 9-C, 10-B
11-B, 12-A, 13-B, 14-C, 15-A, 16-B, 17-A, 18-C, 19-B, 20-C
21-B, 22-C, 23-A, 24-B, 25-C, 26-B, 27-B, 28-C, 29-B, 30-C
31-A, 32-B, 33-B, 34-A, 35-B, 36-B, 37-C, 38-D, 39-C, 40-B
41-B, 42-B, 43-A, 44-B, 45-A, 46-B, 47-A, 48-A, 49-B, 50-A
51-B, 52-A, 53-B, 54-B, 55-A, 56-B, 57-B, 58-B, 59-B, 60-A
61-B, 62-B, 63-B, 64-B, 65-C, 66-A, 67-A, 68-A, 69-A, 70-B
71-B, 72-B, 73-A, 74-B, 75-B, 76-B, 77-A, 78-B, 79-B, 80-B
81-B, 82-A, 83-A, 84-B, 85-A, 86-A, 87-A, 88-B, 89-B, 90-A
91-A, 92-B, 93-B, 94-B, 95-A, 96-B, 97-A, 98-A, 99-A, 100-B
101-B, 102-A, 103-A, 104-A, 105-B, 106-A, 107-A, 108-A, 109-A, 110-A
111-A, 112-A, 113-B, 114-A, 115-A, 116-A, 117-B, 118-A, 119-A, 120-A

**True/False Answer Key (1–30)**

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. True
9. True
10. False
11. True
12. True
13. False
14. False
15. True
16. False
17. True
18. False
19. False
20. True
21. True
22. True
23. True
24. True
25. False
26. True
27. True
28. True
29. False
30. True